Madness and Civilization: A History of Insanity in the Age of Reason

Merquior criticizes Foucault’s analysis of Middle Ages and the 19th-century Reform movement. Are there other pieces of analysis in the text that strike you as an error of historical interpretation? Explain, using examples from the text in your response.

Foucault describes “madness” in the Enlightenment’s framework as a “discourse of delirium.” What does he mean by this, and why is this idea important to his overarching arguments?

Over 60 years have passed since the publication of Madness, during which time Western society’s attitudes toward mental health have shifted immensely. What issues might be addressed in a hypothetical 10th chapter of Madness that roughly covers the period between 1960 and 2020?